There’s ton of magic leaping off the pages in
Shakespeare’s final plays, The Tempest
and The Winter’s Tale. Both plays
were written around 1611, and it appears (at least to me) that Shakespeare
wanted to be more experimental by writing more about the fantastical. There
definitely seems to be more magic in The
Tempest, while we get some magical elements near the end of The Winter’s Tale. Hermione’s transformation
at the end of the play—from statue to real life—adds more mystery to the play
itself. In fact, Hermione’s entire role is one that is full of mystery. Her
powers of persuasion involving Polixenes, for instance, is something that
raises questions not only in the readers but in King Leontes himself. One would
think, however, that Leontes would’ve been more satisfied with the result.
Ultimately, it is Hermione’s transformation
that leaves the audience with satisfaction due to its happy ending, but also
with various questions as to how she was able to hide herself for sixteen years
(relating to the age of the statue, if the transformation was due to her own
will or by Paulina’s direction, and so forth). While The Tempest has more overt magic (powers, magicians, witches, airy sprites,
and so on), The Winter’s Tale hints
at magic through the use of language. For instance, the Shepard mentions “fairy
gold” (l 1616), while Mamillus attempts to tell his mother a tale of “goblins
and sprites” (l 630). The play also contains an oracle in it and subtly hints
at figures or inspirations of Greek mythology. Even the language that Paulina uses
to re-animate Hermione in the final scene hints at a kind of magical ritual. However,
all of this makes me wonder, why would Shakespeare put more magic in The Tempest and less in The Winter’s Tale? In my opinion, the
title, The Winter’s Tale, has more of
a magical feel to it; its title alone has more potential to tease and play with
magical elements. It just seems odd to me that this play would lack more magic
when the title is just so fitting. It is, after all, fairytale-esque like the Princess and The Frog title. Does anyone
have any thoughts concerning Shakespeare’s reasoning for all this?
As for the themes, the themes of The Winter’s Tale are quite similar to those
of The Tempest. Both these plays have
romances, deal with the power of youth, and wrestle with the importance of
forgiveness. In these plays we see how the younger characters are the ones to
reconcile the differences between the old kings. In The Tempest, it is Miranda and Ferdinand, and in The Winter’s Tale, it’s Perdita and
Florizel who are able to give hope to a better future, to make “old hearts
fresh” (l 39). This renewing of relationships through youth also echoes the
importance of time. Time, in short, helps when it comes to forgiveness and reconciliation.
It is ultimately at the end of both plays where we see how time (in addition to
the assistance of the younger characters) has generated growth in Prospero as
well as in Leontes.
Moreover, it is time and forgiveness that are
important themes in Shakespeare’s final plays. Hermione, for example,
eventually forgives Leontes for all that he has done to her, and in The Tempest, Prospero forgives his
brother Alonso for his betrayal. Both plays also deal with injustice. While
Prospero wants justice, or rather, revenge for his brother’s treacherous act,
Leontes wants his own sense of justice against Hermione and Polixenes for their
supposed betrayal. In addition to the characters’ own sense of justice and feelings
of injustice, both plays contain trickery by magic (Prospero conjuring up a
realistic tempest, and Hermione playing a statue). Overall, magic is used in
these plays in order to manipulate reality, trick the characters’ senses, and to drive the plot forward.
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